2013 June UGC NET Previous Years
Solved Paper I
1.
Choose the proper alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark
Bee-Honey,
Cow-Milk, Teacher-?
(A)
Intelligence
(B)
Marks
(C)
Lessons
(D)
Wisdom
Answer: (D)
2.
P is the father of R and S is the son of Q and T is the brother of P. If R is
the sister of S, how is Q related to T
(A)
Wife
(B)
Sister-in-law
(C)
Brother-in-law
(D)
Daughter-in-law
Answer: (B)
3.
A definition put forward to resolve a dispute by influencing attitudes or stirring
emotions is called
(A)
Lexical
(B)
Persuasive
(C)
Stipulative
(D)
Precisions
Answer: (B)
4.
Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements?
Statements:
(i)
Venn diagram is a clear method of notation.
(ii)
Venn diagram is the most direct method of testing the validity of categorical
syllogisms.
(iii)
In Venn diagram method the premises and the conclusion of a categorical syllogism is diagrammed.
(iv)
In Venn diagram method the three overlapping circles are drawn for testing a
categorical syllogism.
Codes:
(A)
(i), (ii) & (iii)
(B)
(i), (ii) & (iv)
(C)
(ii), (iii) & (iv)
(D)
(i), (iii) & (iv)
Answer: (B)
5.
Inductive reasoning presupposes
(A)
Unity in human nature.
(C)
Uniformity in human nature.
(D)
Harmony in human nature.
Answer: (C)
Read
the table below and based on this table answer questions from 6 to 11:
Area
under Major Horticulture Crops (in lakh hectares)
Year
|
Fruits
|
Vegetables
|
Flowers
|
Total Horticulture
Area
|
2005-06
|
53
|
72
|
1
|
187
|
2006-07
|
56
|
75
|
1
|
194
|
2007-08
|
58
|
78
|
2
|
202
|
2008-09
|
61
|
79
|
2
|
207
|
2009-10
|
63
|
79
|
2
|
209
|
6. Which of the following two years have recorded
the highest rate of increase in area under the total horticulture?
(A)
2005-06 & 2006-07
(B)
2006-07 & 2008-09
(C)
2007-08 & 2008-09
(D)
2006-07 & 2007-08
Answer: (D)
7.
Shares of the area under flowers, vegetables and fruits in the area under total
horticulture are respectively:
(A)
1, 38 and 30 percent
(B)
30, 38 and 1 perctent
(C)
38, 30 and 1 percent
(D)
35, 36 and 2 percent
Answer: (A)
8.
Which of the following has recorded the highest rate of increase in area during
2005-06 to 2009-10?
(A)
Fruits
(B)
Vegetables
(C)
Flowers
(D)
Total horticulture
Answer: (C)
9.
Find out the horticultural crops that have recorded an increase of area by
around 10 percent from 2005-06 to 2009-10.
(A)
Fruits
(B)Vegetables
(C)
Flower
(D)Total
horticulture
Answer: (B)
10.
What has been the share of area under fruits, vegetables and flowers in the
area under total horticulture in 2007-08?
(A)
53 percent
(B)
68 percent
(C)
79 percent
(D)
100 percent
Answer: (B)
11.
In which year, area under fruits has recorded the highest rate of increase?
(A)
2006-07
(B)
2007-08
(C)
2008-09
(D)
2009-10
Answer: (A)
12.
‘www’ stands for
(A)
work with web
(C)
world wide web
(D)
worth while web
Answer: (C)
13.
A hard disk is divided into tracks which is further subdivided into
(A)
Clusters
(B)
Sectors
(C)
Vectors
(D)
Heads
Answer: (B)
14.
A computer program that translates a program statement by statement into machine languages is called
a/an
(A)
Compiler
(B)
Simulator
(C)
Translator
(D)
Interpreter
Answer: (D)
15.
A Gigabyte is equal to
(A)
1024 Megabytes
(B)
1024 Kilobytes
(C)
1024 Terabytes
(D)
1024 Bytes
Answer: (A)
16.
A Compiler is a software which converts
(A)
characters to bits
(B)
high level language to machine language
(C)
machine language to high level language
(D)
words to bits
Answer: (B)
17.
Virtual memory is
(A)
an extremely large main memory.
(B)
an extremely large secondary memory.
(D)
a type of memory used in super computers.
Answer: (C)
18.
The phrase “tragedy of commons” is in the context of
(A)
tragic even related to damage caused by release of poisonous gases.
(B)
tragic conditions of poor people.
(C)
degradation of renewable free access resources.
(D)
climate change.
Answer: (C)
19.
Kyoto Protocol is related to
(A)
Ozone depletion
(B)
Hazardous waste
(C)
Climate change
(D)
Nuclear energy
Answer: (C)
20.
Which of the following is a source of emissions leading to the eventual formation of
surface ozone as a pollutant?
(A)
Transport sector
(B)
Refrigeration and Air-conditioning
(C)
Wetlands
(D)
Fertilizers
Answer: (A)
21. The smog in cities in Indian mainly consists of
(A) Oxides of sulphur
(B) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt hydrocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide and SPM
(D) Oxides of sulphur and ozone
Answer: (B)
22. Which of the following types
of natural hazards have the highest potential to cause damage to humans?
(A) Earthquakes
(B) Forest fires
(C) Volcanic eruptions
(D) Droughts and Floods
Answer: (D)
23. The percentage share of renewable energy sources in the power
production in India is around
(A) 2-3%
(B) 22-25%
(C) 10-12%
(D) < 1%
Answer: (C)
24. In which of the following
categories the enrolment of students in higher education in 2010-11 was beyond
the percentage of seats reserved?
(A) OBC students
(B) SC students
(C) ST students
(D) Women students
Answer: (A)
25. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the
University Grants Commission (UGC)?
(A) It was established in 1956 by an Act of Parliament.
(B) It is tasked with promoting and coordinating higher education.
(C) It receives Plan and Non-Plan funds from the Central
Government.
(D) It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State
Universities.
Answer: (D)
26. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I)
and (II):
Statement: Should India switch over to a two party system?
Arguments
(I) Yes, it will lead to stability of Government.
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Answer: (C)
27. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I)
and (II):
Statement: Should persons with criminal background be banned from
contesting elections?
Arguments: (I) Yes, it will decriminalize
politics.
(II) No, it will encourage the ruling party to file frivolous cases against their political
opponents.
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Answer: (A)
28. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about a
Judge of the Supreme Court of India?
1) A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President of
India.
2) He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
3) He can be suspended, pending an inquiry.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1,2 and 3
(B) 1,3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1 and 4
Answer: (D)
29. In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
comes next only to
(A) The President
(B) The Vice-President
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Cabinet Ministers
Answer: (C)
30. The black-board can be utilized best by a teacher for
(B) Making the students attentive
(C) Writing the important and notable points
(D) Highlighting the teacher himself.
Answer: (C)
31. Nowadays the most effective mode of learning is
(A) Self study
(B) Face-to-face learning
(D) Blended learning
Answer: (C) and
(D) Both
32. At the primary school stage, most of the teachers should be
women because they
(A) can teach children better than men.
(B) know basic content better than men.
(C) are available on lower salaries.
(D) can deal with children with love and affection.
Answer: (D)
33. Which one is the highest order of learning?
(A) Chain learning
(C) Stimulus-response learning
(D) Conditioned-reflex learning
Answer: (D)
34. A person can enjoy teaching as a profession when he
(A) has control over students.
(B) commands respect from students.
(C) is more qualified than his colleagues.
(D) is very close to higher authorities.
Answer: (B)
35. “A diagram speaks more than 1000 words.” The statement means
that the teacher should
(B) speak more and more in the class.
(C) use teaching aids in the class.
(D) not speak too much in the class.
Answer: (C)
36. A research paper
(B) contains original research as deemed by the author.
(C) contains peer-reviewed original research or evaluation of
research conducted by others.
(D) can be published in more than one journal.
Answer: (C)
37. Which one of the following belongs to the category of good
‘research ethics’?
(A) Publishing the same paper in two research journals without
telling the editors.
(B) Conducting a review of the literature that acknowledges the
contributions of other people in the relevant field or relevant prior
work.
(C) Trimming outliers from a data set without discussing your reasons
in a research paper.
(D) Including a colleague as an author on a research paper in
return for a favor even though the colleague did not make a serious
contribution to the paper.
Answer: (B)
38. Which of the following sampling methods is not based on
probability?
(A) Simple Random Sampling
(B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Quota Sampling
(D) Cluster Sampling
Answer: (C)
39. Which one of the following references is written as per Modern
Language Association (MLA) format?
(A) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi :
Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(C) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi :
Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(D) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi :
Prentice Hall of India, 2005
Answer: (D)
40. A workshop is
(A) a conference for discussion on a topic.
(B) a meeting for discussion on a topic.
(D) a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the
development of a skill or technique for solving a specific problem.
Answer: (D)
41.
A working hypothesis is
(A)
a proven hypothesis for an argument.
(B)
not required to be tested.
(C)
a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research.
(D)
a scientific theory.
Answer: (C)
Read
the following passage carefully and answer the questions (42 to 47):
The Taj Mahal has become one of the world’s best known monuments.
This domed white marble structure is situated on a high plinth at the southern
end of four-quartered garden, evoking the gardens of paradise, enclosed within
walls measuring 305 by 549 meters. Outside the walls, in an area known as
Mumtazabad, were living quarters for attendants, market, serials and other
structures built by local merchants and nobles. The tomb complex and the other
imperial structures of Mumtazabad were maintained by the income of thirty
villages given specifically for the tomb’s support. The name Taj Mahal is
unknown in Mughal chronicles, but it is used by contemporary Europeans in
India, suggesting that this was the tomb’s popular name. in contemporary texis,
it is generally called simply the illuminated Tomb (Rauza-i-Munavvara).
Mumtaz Mahal died shortly after delivering her fourteenth child in
1631. The Mughal court was then residing in Buhanpur. Her remains were
temporarily buried by the grief stricken emperor in a spacious garden known as
Zainabad on the bank of the river Tapti. Six months later her body was
transported to Agra, where it was interred in land chosen for the mausoleum.
This land, situated south of the Mughal city on the bank of the Jamuna, had
belonged to the Kachwaha rajas since the time of Raja Man Singh and was
purchased from the then current raja, Jai Singh. Although contemporary
chronicles indicate Jai Singh’s willing cooperation in this exchange,
extant farmans (imperial commands) indicate that the final price was not settled
until almost two years after the mausoleum’s commencement. Jai Singh’s further
cooperation was insured by imperial orders issued between 1632 and 1637
demanding that the provide stone masons and carts to transport marble from the
mines at Makrana, within his “ancestral domain”, to Agra where both the Taj
Mahal and Shah Jahan’s additions to the Agra fort were constructed
concurrently.
Work on the mausoleum was commenced early in 1632. Inscriptional
evidence indicates much of the tomb was completed by 1636. By 1643, when Shah
Jahan most lavishly celebrated the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’, the entire
complex was virtually complete.
42. Marble stone used for the construction of te Taj Mahal was
brought from te ancestral domain of Raja Jai Singh. The name of the place where
mines of marble is
(A) Burhanpur
(B) Makrana
(C) Amber
(D) Jaipur
Answer: (B)
43. The popular name Taj Mahal was given by
(A) Shah
Jahan
(B) Tourists
(C) Public
(D) European travellers
Answer: (D)
44. Point out the true statement from the following:
(A) Marble was not used for the construction of the Taj
Mahal.
(B) Red sand stone is non-visible in the Taj Mahal complex.
(C) The Taj Mahal is surrounded by a four-quatered garden known as
Chahr Bagh.
(D) The Taj Mahal was constructed to celebrate the “Urs ceremony
for Mumtaz Mahal”.
Answer: (C)
45. In the contemporary texts the Taj Mahal is known
(A) Mumtazabad
(B) Mumtaz Mahal
(C) Zainabad
(D) Rauza-i-Munavvara
Answer: (D)
46. The Construction of the Taj Mahal was completed between the
period
(A) 1632-1636 A.D.
(B) 1630-1643 A.D.
(C) 1632-1643 A.D.
(D) 1636-1643 A.D.
Answer: (C)
47. The documents indicating the ownership of land, where the Taj
Mahal was built, known as
(A) Farman
(B) Sale Deed
(C) Sale-Purchase Deed
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
(A) Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect, Message
(B) Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect
(C) Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect.
(D) Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect.
Answer: (C)
49. Bengal Gazette, the first Newspaper in India was started in
1780 by
(A) Dr. Annie Besant
(B) James Augustus Hicky
(C) Lord Cripson
(D) A.O. Hume
Answer: (B)
50. Press censorsip in India was imposed during the tenure of the
Prime Minister
(A) Rajeev Gandhi
(B) Narasimha Rao
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Deve Gowda
Answer: (C)
51. Communication via New media such as computers, teleshopping, internet and
mobile telephony is termed as
(A) Entertainment
(B) Interactive communication
(C) Developmental communication
(D) Communication
Answer: (B)
52. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of
(A) Infotainment
(B) Edutainment
(C) Entertainment
(D) Enlightenment
Answer: (B)
53. __________________ is important when a teacher communicates
with his/her student.
(A) Sympathy
(B) Empathy
(C) Apathy
(D) Antipathy
Answer: (B)
54. In a certain code GALIB is represented by HBMJC. TIGER will be
represented by
(A) UJHFS
(B) UHJSE
(C) JHUSF
(D) HUJSE
Answer: (A)
55. In a certain cricket tournament 45 matches were played. Each
team played once against each of the other teams. The number of teams participated in the tournament is
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 210
Answer: (B)
56. The missing number in the series
40, 120, 60, 180, 90, ?, 135 is
(A) 110
(B) 270
(C) 105
(D) 210
Answer: (B)
57. The odd numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3
are arranged in an ascending order. The number at 6thposition is
(A) 18
(B) 24
(C) 33
(D) 36
Answer: (C)
58. The mean of four numbers a,b,c,d is 100. IF c = 70, then the
mean of the remaining numbers is
(A) 30
(B) 85/2
(C) 170/3
(D) 110
Answer: (D)
(A) 20%
(B) 30%
(C) 40%
(D) 50%
Answer: (D)
60. If the statement ‘some men are honest’ is false, which among
the following statements will be true. Choose the correct code given below:
(i) All men are honest
(ii) No men are honest
(iii) Some men are not honest.
(iv) All men are dishonest.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (B)
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