UGC NET JUNE 2014 PAPER 1 QUESTION PAPER WITH KEY
sunday (29-06-14) ugc key is given
AND DISCUSS WITH US THE CUT OFF MARKS OF ALL SUBJECTS IN THE COMMENT BOX....
sunday (29-06-14) ugc key is given
1. "If
a large diamond is cut up into little bits, it will lose its value just as an
army is divided up into small units of soldiers, it loses its strength."
The argument put above may be called as
(A)
Analogical (B) Deductive
(C)
Statistical (D) Causal
2. Given
below are some characteristics of logical argument. Select the code which
expresses a characteristic which is not of inductive in character.
(A) The
conclusion is claimed to follow from its premises.
(B) The conclusion is based on causal relation.
(C) The conclusion conclusively follows from its
premises.
(D) The
conclusion is based on observation and experiment
3. If two propositions having the same subject
and predicate terms can both be true but can not both be false, the relation between
those two propositions is
called
(A) contradictory
(B) contrary
(C) subcontrary
(D)
subaltern
4. One
writes all numbers from 50 to 99 without the digits 2 and 7. How many numbers
have been written ?
(A)
32 (B) 36
(C) 40 (D) 38
5. Given below is a diagram of three circles
A, B & C inter-related with each other. The circle A represents the class
of Indians, the circle B represents the class of scientists and circle C
represents the class of politicians, p, q, r, s ... represent different
regions. Select the code containing the region that indicates the class of
Indian scientists who are not politicians.
Codes :
(A)
q and s only
(B) s only
(C) s and r only
(D)
p, q and s only
6. Given
below are two premises and four conclusions drawn from those premises. Select
the code that expresses conclusion drawn validly from the premises (separately
or jointly).
Premises:
(a) All dogs are
mammals.
(b) No cats are
dogs.
Conclusions
:
(i) No cats are
mammals.
(ii) Some cats are
mammals,
(iii) No
dogs are cats,
(iv) No dogs are
non-mammals.
Codes:
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
Read the following table carefully. Based
upon this table answer questions from 7 to 11: Net Area under Irrigation by
sources in a country (Thousand Hectares)
Year
|
Govern-ment
canal
|
Private
canals
|
Tanks
|
Tube
wells
& other wells
|
Other
sources
|
Total
|
1997-98
|
17117
|
211
|
2593
|
32090
|
3102
|
55173
|
1998-99
|
17093
|
212
|
2792
|
33988
|
3326
|
57411
|
1999-00
|
16842
|
194
|
2535
|
34623
|
2915
|
57109
|
2000-01
|
15748
|
203
|
2449
|
33796
|
2880
|
550761
|
2001-02
|
15031
|
209
|
2179
|
34906
|
4347
|
56672
|
2002-03
|
13863
|
206
|
1802
|
34250
|
3657
|
53778
|
2003-04
|
14444
|
206
|
1908
|
35779
|
4281
|
56618
|
2004-05
|
14696
|
206
|
1727
|
34785
|
7453
|
58867
|
2005-06
|
15268
|
207
|
2034
|
35372
|
7314
|
60196
|
7. Find out the source of Irrigation that has
registered the maximum improvement in terms of percentage of Net irrigated area
during 2002-03 and 2003-04.
(A) Government
canals
(B) Tanks
(C) Tube
wells and other wells
(D) Other sources
(D) Other sources
8. In which of the following years, Net
irrigation by tanks increased at the highest rate ?
(A)
1998-99 (B) 2000-01 (C) 2003-04 (D) 2005-06
9. Identify the source of Irrigation that has
recorded the maximum incidence of negative growth in terms of Net irrigated
area during the years given in the table.
(A)
Government canals
(B) Private canals
(C) Tube wells and other wells
(D)
Other sources
10. In which of the following years, share of the
tube wells and other wells in the total net irrigated area was the highest ?
(A)
1998-99 (B) 2000-01
(C)
2002-03 (D) 2004-05
11. Which
of the following sources of Irrigation has registered the largest percentage of
decline in Net area under irrigation during 1997-98 and 2005-06 ?
(A) Government canals
(B) Private canals
(C) Tanks
(D)
Other sources
12. Which one of the following is not a/an image/graphic file
format ?
(A) PNG (B)
GIF
(C) BMP (D)
GUI
13. The
first web browser is
(A)
Internet Explorer
(B)
Netscape
(C) World Wide Web
(D) Firefox
14. When
a computer is booting, BIOS is loaded to the memory by
(A) RAM (B)
ROM
(C)
CD-ROM (D) TCP
15. Which
one of the following is not the same as the other three ?
(A)
MAC address
(B)
Hardware address
(C)
Physical address
(D) IP address
(D) IP address
16. Identify the
IP address from
the following :
(A)
300 - 215 -317-3
(B) 302-215® 417 -5
(c) 202 • 50 • 20 .148
17. The
acronym FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol
(A) File Transfer Protocol
(B)
Fast Transfer Protocol
(C)
File Tracking Protocol
(D)
File Transfer Procedure
18. Which
of the following cities has been worst affected by urban smog in recent times ?
(A)
Paris
(B)
London
(C)
Los Angeles
(D) Beijing
19. The
primary source of organic pollution in
fresh water bodies is
(A)
run-off urban areas
(B)
run-off from agricultural forms
(C)
sewage effluents industrial effluents
(D) Industrial effluents
20. 'Lahar' is a natural disaster involving
(A) eruption
of large amount of material
(B)
strong winds
(C)
strong water waves
(D) strong winds and
water waves
21. The population of India is about 1.2 billion.
Take the average consumption of energy per person per year in India as 30 Mega Joules. If this consumption is met by
carbon based fuels and the rate of carbon emissions per kilojoule is 15 x 106
kgs, the total carbon emissions per year from India will be
(A) 54
million metric tons
(B) 540
million metric
(C)
5400 million metric tons
22. The National Disaster Management Authority
functions under the Union Ministry of
(A) Environment
(B) Water Resources
(C) Home Affairs
(D) Defence
23. Match List -1 and List - II and select the
correct answer from the codes given below :
List-I List-II
a. Flood
|
1. Lack
of rainfall of sufficient duration
|
b. Drought
|
2. Tremors
produced by the passage of vibratory waves through the rocks of the earth
|
c. Earthquakes
|
3. A
vent through which molted substances come out
|
d. Volcano
|
4. Excess
rain and uneven distribution of water
|
Codes
a
|
b
|
c
|
d
|
|
(A)
|
4
|
1
|
2
|
3
|
(B)
|
2
|
3
|
4
|
1
|
(C)
|
3
|
4
|
2
|
1
|
(D)
|
4
|
3
|
1
|
2
|
24. Which one of the following green house gases
has the shortest residence time in the atmosphere ?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbon
(B) Carbon
dioxide
(C) Methane
(D) Nitrous
oxide
25. In order to avoid catastrophic consequences
of climate change, there is general agreement among the countries of the world
to limit the rise in average surface temperature of earth compared to that of
pre-industrial times by
(A)
1.5°Cto2°C
(B)
2.0°Cto3.5°C
(C)
0.5°Ctol.O°C
(D) 0.25 °C to 0.5 °C
26. Who among the following is the de facto
executive head of the Planning Commission ?
(A) Chairman
(A) Chairman
(B)
Deputy Chairman
(C) Minister of State for Planning
(D) Member Secretary
27. Education as a subject of legislation figures
in the
(A) Union List (B) State List
(C)Concurrent List (D) Residuary Powers
28.
Which of the following are Central Universities ?
1.
Pondicherry University
2. Vishwa Bharati
3. H.N.B. Garhwal University
4.
Kurukshetra University
Select the correct ariswer from the code
given below:
Codes:
(A) 1,2 and 3
(B) 1,3
and 4
(C) 2,3
and 4
(D) 1,2and
4
29. Consider
the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given
below:
i. Rajasthan
receives the highest solar radiation in the country.
ii. India
has the fifth largest installed wind power in the world.
iii. The
maximum amount of wind power is contributed by Tamil Nadu.
iv. The primary source of uranium in India is Jaduguda.
Codes:
(A) i and ii
(B) i, ii and iii
(C) ii
and iii
(D) i and iv
30. Which
of the following universities has adopted the meta university concept ?
(A) Assam
University
(B) Delhi
University
(C) Hyderabad
University
31. Which
of the following statements are correct about a Central University ?
1.
Central University is established
under an Act of Parliament.
2. The President of India acts as the
visitor of the University.
3. The President has the power to nominate
some members to the Executive
Committee or the Board
of Management of the University.
4. The President occasionally presides over
the meetings of the Executive Committee or Court. Select the correct answer
from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1,2
and 4 (B) 1,3 and 4
(C) 1,2
and 3 (D) 1,2, 3 and 4
32. Consider the
statement which is followed by two arguments (i) and (ii).
Statement: India
should have a very
strong and powerful Lokpal.
Arguments :
(i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy. (ii)No, it
will discourage honest officers from making quick decisions.
Codes:
(A) Only
argument (i) is strong.
(B) Only
argument (ii) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither
of the arguments is strong.
33. Which one of the following is the best method
of teaching ? (UGC NET SEPTEMBER 2013 PREV QUESTION)
(A) Lecture
(B) Discussion
(C) Demonstration
(D) Narration
34. Dyslexia is associated with
(A) mental disorder
(B) behavioural disorder
(C) reading
disorder
(D) writing
disorder
35. The e-content generation for undergraduate
courses has been assigned by the
Ministry of Human
Resource Development to
(A) INFLIBNET
(B) Consortium for Educational Communication
(C) National
Knowledge Commission
(D) Indira Gandhi
National Open University
36. Classroom
communication is normally considered as
(UGC NET SEPTEMBER 2013 PREV QUESTION)
(A) effective (B)
cognitive
(C) affective (D) selective
37. Which one
of the following
is considered a sign of motivated teaching ?
(A)
Students asking questions
(B) Maximum
attendance of the students
(C) Pin drop silence in the classroom
(D)
Students taking notes
38. In a thesis, figures and tables are included
in
(A) the appendix
(B) a separate chapter
(C) the
concluding chapter
(D) the
text itself
39. A thesis statement is
(A) an observation
(B) a fact
(C) an assertion
40. The
research approach of Max Weber to understand how people create meanings in
natural settings is identified as
(A)
positive paradigm
(B)
critical paradigm
(C)
natural paradigm
(D) interpretative paradigm
41. Which one of the following is a
non-probability sampling ?
(A) Simple
random
(B)
Purposive
(C)
Systematic
(D) Stratified
42. Identify the category of evaluation that
assesses the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to the students
during instruction.
(A) Placement (B)
Diagnostic
(C) Formative (D) Summative
43. Research
stream of immediate application
is
(A) Conceptual
research
(B) Action
research
(C) Fundamental
research
(D) Empirical
research
44. Who
among the following, propounded the concept of paradigm ?
(A) Peter Haggett
(B) Von
Thunen
(C) Thomas Kuhn
(D) John K. Wright
45. Read
the following passage carefully and answer questions 45 to 49 :
Traditional
Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual and from
that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups
enjoying a common system of leadership which we call the 'State'. The Indian
'State's' special feature is the peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence of social
groups of various historical provenances which mutually adhere in a
geographical, economic, and political sense, without ever assimilating to each
other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern Indian
law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the regime of the
family, upon the basis of how the loin-cloth is tied, or how the turban is
worn, for this may identify the litigants as members of a regional group, and
therefore as participants in its traditional law, though their ancestors left
the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word 'State' above
must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict between the individual
and the State, atleast before foreign governments became established, just as
there was no concept of state 'sovereignty' or of any church-and-state
dichotomy.
Modern
Indian 'secularism' has an admittedly peculiar feature : It requires the state
to make a fair distribution of attention and support amongst all religions.
These blessed aspects of India's famed tolerance (Indian kings so rarely
persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the rule) at once struck
Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the
sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways
gave rise, at one remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas More's Utopia.
There is little about modern India that strikes one at once as Utopian : but
the insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the absence of bigotry and
institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very
different features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the
essence of all Utopians.
45.
The author uses the word 'State' to highlight
(A) Antagonistic
relationship between the state and the individual throughout the period of history.
(B) Absence
of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in time.
(C) The concept of state sovereignty.
(D) Dependence on religion.
46. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern
Indian 'Secularism'
(A) No discrimination
on religious considerations
(B) Total
indifference to religion^
(C) No space for social identity
(D) Disregard for social law
47. The basic construction of Thomas More's
Utopia was inspired by
(A) Indian
tradition of religious tolerance.
(B) Persecution of
religious groups by Indian rulers.
(C) Social
inequality in India.
(D) European
perception of Indian State.
48. What
is the striking feature of modern India?
(A) A
replica of Utopian State
(B)
Uniform laws
(C)
Adherence to traditional values
(D) Absence
of Bigotry
:
49. Which of the following is a special feature
of the Indian State ?
(A) Peaceful
co-existence of people under a common system of leadership
(B) Peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to each other in a geographical, economic and political sense
(B) Peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to each other in a geographical, economic and political sense
(C) Social integration of all groups
(D) Cultural assimilation of all social groups.
50.
The Telephone Model of Communication was first developed in the area of
(A) Technological theory
(B) Dispersion theory
(C) Minimal effects theory
(D) Information
theory
51. The Dada Saheb
Phalke Award for 2013 has been conferred on
(A) Karan
Johar
(B) Amir
Khan
(C) AshaBhonsle
(D) Gulzar
52. Photographs
are not easy to
(A) publish (B) secure
(C) decode (D)
change
53. The
grains that appear on a television set when operated are also referred to as
(A) sparks (B)
green dots
(C) snow (D) rain drops
54. In circular
communication, the encoder becomes a decoder
when there is
(A) noise (B) audience
(C) criticality (D)
feedback
55. Break-down
in verbal communication is described as
(A) Short circuit
(B) Contradiction
(C) Unevenness
(D) Entropy
56. In
certain coding method, the word QUESTION is encoded as DOMESTIC. In this
coding, what is the
code word for the word RESPONSE?
(A) OMESUCEM
(B) OMESICSM
(C) OMESICEM
(D) OMESISCM
57. If the series 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22, ....
is continued in the
same pattern, which one of the following is not a term of this series?
(A) 31 (B) 32
(C) 33 (D) 35
58. Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML, PP............by choosing
one of the following
option given:
(A) TS (B)
ST
(C) RS (D) SR
59. A man started walking from his house towards south. After
walking 6 km, he turned to his left and walked 5 km. Then he walked further 3
km after turning left. He then turned to his left and continued his walk for 9
km. How far is he away from his house ?
(A) 3km (B) 4km
(C) 5 km (D) 6 km
60. In a
post-office, stamps of three different denominations of Rs.7, Rs. 10 are
available. The exact amount for which one cannot buy stamps is
(A) 19 (B) 20
(C)
23 (D) 29
ANSWERS
1) A 2) c 3) C, 4) A 5) B 6) C 7) D 8) D 9) A 10) C
11)C 12) D 13) C 14) B 15) D 16) C 17) A 18) D 19) C 20) A
21)B 22) C 23) A 24) C 25) A 26) B 27) C 28) A 29) D 30) B
11)C 12) D 13) C 14) B 15) D 16) C 17) A 18) D 19) C 20) A
21)B 22) C 23) A 24) C 25) A 26) B 27) C 28) A 29) D 30) B
31)C 32) A 33) C 34) C 35) B 36)C 37) A 38) D 39) C 40) D
41) B 42)C 43) B 44) C 45) D 46) A 47) A 48) D 49) B 50) D
51) D 52) C 53)C 54) D 55) D 56) C 57) C 58) A 59) C 60) A
41) B 42)C 43) B 44) C 45) D 46) A 47) A 48) D 49) B 50) D
51) D 52) C 53)C 54) D 55) D 56) C 57) C 58) A 59) C 60) A
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